There are certain verses in John’s gospel, John 1:1-3 and John 17:5, for example, that are considered proof that Jesus pre-existed in heaven.  There’s another passage, depending on the translation you read, that appears to support the notion as well:

John 13:3 (NIV) Jesus knew that the Father had put all things under his power, and that he had come from God and was returning to God  (emphasis added)

Did Jesus Return to the Father?

The phrase “returning to God” or “going back to God” as the NASB translates it, implies that Jesus preexisted in heaven with the Father prior to his earthly ministry.  In other words, he’s been there before, and he’s going to return.  But is this what the Greek text says?  Let’s examine both the text and context to find out.

In chapter thirteen of John’s gospel we find Jesus and his disciples at what will be his final Passover meal:

John 13:1 (NASB) Now before the Feast of the Passover, Jesus knowing that His hour had come that He would depart out of this world to the Father, having loved His own who were in the world, He loved them to the end. (emphasis added)

The context of John 13 is about the immediate future, not about a supposed eternity past.  Jesus is telling his disciples that their Teacher and Lord is going to be betrayed and that he is going to leave them.  Of course, we understand him to be referencing his imminent death, resurrection, and ascension to the Father.  With these things in mind, John tells us, Jesus spent his last hours serving his disciples:

John 13:3-4 (NASB) Jesus, knowing that the Father had given all things into His hands, and that He had come forth from God and was going back to God, ⁴  *got up from supper, and *laid aside His garments; and taking a towel, He girded Himself. (emphasis added)

In addition to the NIV and the NASB, there are other translations that add words to the text.  For example:

English Standard Version:  Jesus, knowing that the Father had given all things into his hands, and that he had come from God and was going back to God (emphasis added)

Holman Christian Standard:  Jesus knew that the Father had given everything into His hands, that He had come from God, and that He was going back to God. (emphasis added)

To the Trinitarian reader, who brings an anachronistic view of pre-existence into the text, coupled with the translators’ additions, this passage is a “clear” indication of Jesus’ heavenly pre-existence.  He came forth from God and was going back to God.  There is a problem, however.  It’s not what the original text says.  The Greek text reads, “…to God he is going,” not that he is going back.[1]  The New King James Version supports the original text in its translation: 

John 13:3 (NKJV) Jesus, knowing that the Father had given all things into His hands, and that He had come from God and was going to God. (emphasis added)

The word “going” in the Greek in John 13:3 is hypagei, and it means: to lead or bring under, to lead on slowly, to depart.  It’s usages include: to go away, depart, begone, die.[2]

Hypagei occurs eleven times in the New Testament, and it is never translated going back or returning to, except for John 13:3 in some translations.[3]  Furthermore, the root word of hypagei is hupagó.[4]  In the NASB, hupagó occurs eighty times in its various forms (including hypagei), and it is never translated as going back or returning to, except as already mentioned, in John 13:3.[5]  Which begs the question, Why do some translators add words to hypagei to make the going to God a return trip?  Could it be that the addition reflects the translators’ bias? Is it possible that in an effort to strengthen the case for the doctrine of Jesus’ pre-existence, they added the words?  They may reason, “It’s not what the text says, but surely that’s what it means.”  The problem with adding words to the text is that their bias now affects the unsuspecting reader who trusts the translators to be neutral. Instead of rendering the text from Greek into English, the translators have become interpreters who obscure the sacred text with their additions.  A serious concern, indeed.

Jesus Came From God

Some may say, but what about the fact that John 13:3 says that Jesus had come from God?  Isn’t that proof of Jesus’ pre-existence?  Not if we read the text with a conventional Hebraic understanding.  Traditional Jews did not believe in a literal pre-existence.  To them, all things of note pre-existed, but only in the plan or foreknowledge of God.  To come from God or to say that something came down from heaven meant that someone or something was of God, that is, it was sent or sanctioned by God.  For instance, regarding the prophet John the Baptist:

John 1:6 (NASB) There came a man sent from God, whose name was John. (emphasis added)

No one would venture to say that this passage means John pre-existed with God in heaven.  Rather, we understand it to mean that John’s ministry was ordained by God.  Here’s another example:

John 3:1-2 (NASB) Now there was a man of the Pharisees, named Nicodemus, a ruler of the Jews; ²  this man came to Jesus by night and said to Him, “Rabbi, we know that You have come from God as a teacher; for no one can do these signs that You do unless God is with him.”  (emphasis added)

Nicodemus did not believe that Jesus pre-existed, rather he recognized that the signs Jesus performed were an indication that he had come from God, i.e., that God was with him. In addition, a man who had been healed of blindness said this about the Christ: 

John 9:32-33 (NASB) “Since the beginning of time it has never been heard that anyone opened the eyes of a person born blind. ³³  “If this man were not from God, He could do nothing.” (emphasis added)

The now sighted-man did not think Jesus was God.  On the contrary, the context tells us that the man understood that Jesus was a prophet God had sent and empowered to be the Son of Man, that is, the Christ or Messiah.  For this reason, the grateful man bowed in reverence before him.[6]

Believers Are From God

Not only is Jesus said to have come from God, his followers are said to be from God, as well:

1 John 4:4 (NASB) You are from God, little children, and have overcome them; because greater is He who is in you than he who is in the world. (emphasis added)

As we can see, to be from God does not equate one with having pre-existed in heaven.

Going back to the Father

Unfortunately, John 13:3 is not the only place where translators have altered the text:

John 16:28 (NIV) I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.” (emphasis added)

Here, the word going in the Greek is poreuomai, and it simply means to go.[7]  Unfortunately, the NIV, once again, alters the text.  This time they added the word back, which implies that Jesus is returning to heaven.  But this is not what the text states.  The NASB, ESV, and others correctly translate the phrase to say that Jesus is going to the Father.  The NKJV also correctly translates it as follows: 

John 16:28 (NKJV) I came forth from the Father and have come into the world. Again, I leave the world and go to the Father.” (emphasis added)

Some may point out that the verse says that Jesus had come into the world and claim this proves Jesus pre-existed.  However, an examination of the phrase reveals it to be a figure of speech that means to be born, not only in the Jewish culture of the first century but in our culture as well.[8] For example, observe how the phrase is used in the same context: 

John 16:21 (NASB) “Whenever a woman is in labor she has pain, because her hour has come; but when she gives birth to the child, she no longer remembers the anguish because of the joy that a child has been born into the world. (emphasis added)

Another example of this figure of speech is found in Paul’s letter to Timothy:

1 Timothy 6:7 (NASB) For we have brought nothing into the world, so we cannot take anything out of it either. (emphasis added)

Clearly, to come into the world is a reference to one’s birth and not proof that someone pre-existed in heaven.

Conclusion

Scripture does not speak of Jesus returning to or going back to God, only of his going to the Father, that is, of his resurrection and ascension.     

We must be aware that even Bible translators have biases.  Unfortunately, some have added words to the sacred text, thus obscuring the original meaning.  Therefore, it is imperative that we act like the Bereans and examine Scriptures to see if what we are being taught is true.[9]

[1] https://biblehub.com/interlinear/john/13-3.htm

[2] Strong’s Greek Dictionary, https://biblehub.com/greek/5217.htm

[3] https://biblehub.com/greek/hypagei_5217.htm

[4] Strong’s Concordance, https://biblehub.com/greek/5217.htm

[5] In John 11:8, the disciples asked Jesus if he was going to Judea again.  “[Jesus]…are You going there again?”  The word going is hypagie, and it is rightly translated as such.  The word “again” in the Greek is palin.  Palin, not the word hypagie, lets the reader know that Jesus was going to return to Judea.  If again had not been spoken, the text would have simply said that Jesus was going to Judea.  There is nothing in John 13:3 to indicate Jesus’ going was a “return trip.”

[6] In John 9:17, when asked by the Pharisees who he thought Jesus was, the formerly blind man said Jesus was a prophet.  Verse 22 reveals further that the context is about Jesus being the Christ.  In verses 35-38, Jesus tells the man that he is the Son of Man, a Biblical designation for the Christ/Messiah.  In response to this revelation, in verse 38, the man proskuneô before Jesus, which means to do reverence.  It is the same word translated in Revelation 3:9 as bow down.  

[7] poreuomai, Strongs #4198,  https://biblehub.com/greek/4198.htm

[8] “to come into the world,” Merriam Webster’s Dictionary, online accessed 3-18-20, https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/come%20into%20the%20world

[9] Acts 17:10-12.